GS Prelims Previous Years Question Paper- 2010 (Part 1)

GS Prelims Previous Years Question Paper- 2010 (Part 1)


1.A cuboid has six sides of different colours. The red side is opposite to black. The blue side is adjacent to white. The brown side is adjacent to blue. The red side is face down. Which one of the following would be the opposite of brown?

A. Red
B. Black
C. White
D. Blue

ANSWER: C

2.By a regulation in 1793, the District Collector was deprived of his judicial powers and made the collecting agent only. What was the reason for such regulation?

A. Lord Cornwallis felt that the District Collector’s efficiency of revenue collection would enormously increase without the burden of other work
B. Lord Cornwallis felt that judicial power should compulsorily be in the hands of Europeans while Indians can be given the job of revenue collection in the districts
C. Lord Cornwallis was alarmed at the extent of power concentrated in the District Collector and felt that such absolute power was undesirable in one person.
D. The judicial work demanded a deep knowledge of India and a good training in law and’ Lord Cornwallis felt that District Collector should be only a revenue collector

ANSWER: C

3.What is the principle by which a cooling system (Radiator) in a motor car works?

A. Conduction only
B. Convection
C. Radiation only
D. Both conduction & radiation

ANSWER: B

4.In a group of five persons A, B, C, D and E, there is a professor, a doctor and lawyer. A and D are unmarried ladies, and do not work. Of the married couple in the Group, E is the husband. B is the brother of A and is neither a doctor nor a lawyer. Who is the professor?

A. B
B. C
C. A
D. None of these

ANSWER: A

5. Half of the villagers of a certain village have their own houses. One – fifth of the villagers cultivate paddy. One-third of the villagers are literate. Four- fifth of the villagers are below twenty five. Then, which one of the following is certainly true?

A. All the villagers who have their own houses are literate
B. Some villagers under twenty five are literate
C. A quarter of the villagers who have their own houses cultivate paddy
D. Half of the villagers who cultivate paddy are literate

ANSWER: B

6.King Cobra is the only snake that makes its own nest. Why does it make its nest?

A. It is a snake-eater and the nest helps attract other snakes
B. It is a viviparous snake and needs a nest to give birth to its offspring
C. It is an oviparous snake and lays its eggs in the nest and guards the nest until they are hatched
D. It is a large, cold blooded animal and needs a nest to hibernate in the cold season.

ANSWER: C

7.In a tournament 14 teams play league/ matches. If each team play against every other team once only then how many matches are played?

A. 105
B. 91
C. 85
D. 78

ANSWER: B

8.With reference to the institution of Banking Ombudsman in India, which one of the statements is not correct?

A. The Banking Ombudsman is appointed by the Reserve Bank of India
B. The Banking Ombudsman can consider complaints from Non-Resident Indians having accounts in India
C. The orders passed by the Banking Ombudsman, are final and binding on the parties concerned
D. The service provided by the Banking Ombudsman is free of any fee

ANSWER: C

9.Each person’s performance compared with all other persons is to be done to rank them subjectively. How many comparisons are needed in total, if there are 11 persons?

A. 66
B. 55
C. 54
D. 45

ANSWER: B

10.Two trains leave New Delhi at the same time. One travels north at 60 kmph and the other travels south at 40 kmph. After how many hours will the trains be 150 km apart?

A. 3/2
B. 4/3
C. 3/4
D. 15/2

ANSWER: A

11.With reference to Simon Commission’s recommendations, which one of the following statements is correct?

A. It recommended the replacement of diarchy with responsible government in the provinces.
B. It proposed the setting up of interprovincial council under the Home Department.
C. It suggested the abolition of bicameral legislature at the Centre.
D. In recommended the creation of Indian Police Service with a provision for increased pay and allowances for British recruits as compared to Indian recruits.

ANSWER: A

12. Four resolutions were passed at the famous Calcutta session of Indian National Congress in 1906. The question of either retention OR of rejection of these four resolutions became the cause of a split in Congress at the next Congress session held in Surat in 1907. Which one of the following was not one of these resolutions?

A. Annulment of partition of Bengal.
B. Boycott.
C. National education
D. Swadeshi.

ANSWER: A

13. After Quit India Movement, C. Rajagopalachari issued a pamphlet entitled “The Way Out”. Which one of the following was a proposal in this pamphlet?
A. The establishment of a “War Advisory Council” composed of representatives of British India and the Indian States.
B. Reconstitution of the Central Executive Council in such a way that all its members, except the Governor General and the Commander-in- Chief should be Indian leaders.
C. Fresh elections to the Central and Provincial Legislatures to be held at the end of 1945 and the Constitution making body to be convened as soon as possible.
D. A solution for the constitutional deadlock.

ANSWER: D

14.In how many ways can four children be made to stand in a line such that two of them, A and B are always together?

A. 6
B. 12
C. 18
D. 24

ANSWER: B

15.In a meeting, the map of a village was placed in such a manner that south – east becomes north, north – east becomes west and so on. What will south become?

A. North
B. North – east
C. North – west
D. West

ANSWER: B

16.With reference to India, consider the following:

1. Nationalization of Banks

2. Formation of Regional Rural Banks

3. Adoption of villages by Bank Branches

Which of the above can be considered as steps taken to achieve the “financial inclusion” in India?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: D

17.Who among the following Governor Generals created the Covenanted Civil Service of India which later came to be known as the Indian Civil Service?

A. Warren Hastings
B. Wellesley
C. Cornwallis
D. William Bentinck

ANSWER: C

18.Why did Buddhism start declining in India in the early medieval times?

1. Buddha was by that time considered as one of the incarnations of Vishnu and thus became a part of Vaishnavism,

2. The invading tribes from Central Asia till the time of last Gupta king adopted Hinduism and persecuted Buddhists.

3. The Kings of Gupta dynasty were strongly opposed to Buddhism.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: A

19.A new type of EI Nino called EI Nino Modoki appeared in the news. In this context, consider the following statements :

1. Normal EI Nino forms in the Central Pacific ocean whereas EI Nino Modoki forms in Eastern Pacific ocean.

2. Normal El Nino results in diminished hurricanes in the Atlantic ocean but El Nino Modoki results in a greater number of hurricanes with greater frequency.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER: B

20.Though coffee and tea both are cultivated on hill slopes, there is some difference between them regarding their cultivation.

In this context, consider the following statements:

1. Coffee plant requires a hot and humid climate of tropical areas whereas tea can be cultivated in both tropical and subtropical areas.

2. Coffee is propagated by seeds but tea is propagated by stem cuttings only.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER: A

21.Consider the following statements:

The satellite Oceansat-2 launched by India helps in

1. Estimating the water vapour content in the atmosphere.

2 Predicting the onset of monsoons.

3. monitoring the pollution of coastal waters.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: D

22.The diameters of two circular coins are in the ratio of 1: 3. The smaller coin is made to roll around the bigger coin till it returns to the position from where the process of rolling started. How many times the smaller coin rolled around the bigger coin?

A. 9
B. 6
C. 3
D. 1.5

ANSWER: C

23.With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following:

1. Fundamental Rights

2 Fundamental Duties

3. Directive Principles of State Policy

Which of the above provisions of the Constitution of India is/are fulfilled by the National Social Assistance Programme launched by the Government of India?

A. 1 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: B

24.When ten persons shake hands with one another, in how many ways is it possible?

A. 20
B. 25
C. 40
D. 45

ANSWER: D

25.A candidate attempted 12 questions and secured full marks in all of them. If he obtained 60% in the test and all questions carried equal marks, then what is the number of questions in the test?

A. 36
B. 30
C. 25
D. 20

ANSWER: D

26.What was the immediate reason for Ahmad Shah Abdali to invade India and fight the Third Battle of Panipat?

A. He wanted to avenge the expulsion by Marathas of his viceroy Timur Shah from Lahore
B. The frustrated governor of Jullundhar Adina Beg Khan invited him to invade Punjab .
C. He wanted to punish Mughal administration for non-payment of the revenues of the Chahar Mahal (Gujarat, Aurangabad, Sialkot and Pasrur) .
D. He wanted to annex all the fertile plains of Punjab up to the borders of Delhi to his kingdom .

ANSWER: A

27.With reference to Pondicherry (now Puducherry), consider the following statements:

1. The first European power to occupy Pondicherry were the Portuguese.

2. The second European power to occupy Pondicherry were the French.

3. The English never occupied Pondicherry.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: A

28.Among the following, who was not a proponent of bhakti cult?

A. Nagarjuna
B. Tukaram
C. Tyagaraja
D. Vallabhacharya

ANSWER: A

29.Consider the following statements:

1. Biodiversity hotspots are located only in tropical regions.

2 India has four biodiversity hotspots i.e., Eastern Himalayas, Western Himalayas, Western Ghats and Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER: D

30. Following are the characteristics of an area in India:

1. Hot and humid climate

2. Annual rainfall 200 cm

3. Hill slopes up to altitude of 1100 metres

4. Annual range of temperature 15°C to 30°C

Which one among the following crops are you most likely to find in the area described above?

A. Mustard
B. Cotton
C. Pepper
D. Virginia tobacco

ANSWER: C

31.Who of the following shall cause every recommendation made by the Finance Commission to be laid before each House of Parliament?

A. The President of India
B. The Speaker of Lok Sabha
C. The Prime Minister of India
D. The Union Finance Minister

ANSWER: A

32.Which one of the following is responsible for the preparation and presentation of Union Budget to the Parliament?

A. Department of Revenue
B. Department of Economic Affairs
C. Department of Financial Services
D. Department of Expenditure

ANSWER: B

33.Which one of the following authorities makes recommendation to the Governor of a State as to the principles for determining the taxes and duties which may be appropriated by the Panchayats in that particular State?

A. District Planning Committees
B. State Finance Commission
C. Finance Ministry of that State
D. Panchayati Raj Ministry of that State

ANSWER: B

34.India is a party to the Ramsar Convention and has declared many areas as Ramsar Sites. Which of the following statements best describes as to how we should maintain these sites in the context of this convention?

A. Keep all the sites completely inaccessible to man so that they will not be exploited
B. Conserve all the sites through ecosystem approach and permit tourism and recreation only
C. Conserve all the sites through ecosystem approach for a period without any exploitation, with specific criteria and specific period for each site, and then allow sustainable use of them by future generations
D. Conserve all the sites through ecosystem approach and allow their simultaneous sustainable use

ANSWER: D

35.In India, which type of forest among the following occupies the largest area?

A. Montane Wet Temperate Forest
B. Sub – tropical Dry Evergreen Forest
C. Tropical Moist Deciduous Forest
D. Tropical Wet Evergreen Forest

ANSWER: C

36. Tamil Nadu is a leading producer of mill-made cotton yarn in the country. What could be the reason?

1. Black cotton soil is the predominant type of soil in the State.

2. Rich pool of skilled labour is available.

Which of the above is / are the correct reasons?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER: B

37. The approximate representation of land use classification in India is

A. Net area sown 25%; forests 33%; other areas 42%
B. Net area sown 58%; forests 17%; other areas 25%
C. Net area sown 43%; forests 29%; other areas 28%
D. Net area sown 47%; forests 23%; other areas 30%

ANSWER: D

38.In India, during the last decade the total cultivated land for which one of the following crops has remained more or less stagnant?

A. Rice
B. Oilseeds
C. Pulses
D. Sugarcane

ANSWER: C

39.With reference to the river Luni, which one of the following statements is correct?

A. It flows into Gulf of Khambhat
B. It flows into Gulf of Kutch
C. It flows into Pakistan and merges with a tributary of Indus
D. It is lost in the marshy land of the Rann of Kutch

ANSWER: D

40.What are the possible limitations of India in mitigating the global warming at present and in the immediate future?

1. Appropriate alternate technologies are not sufficiently available.

2. India cannot invest huge funds in research and development.

3. Many developed countries have already set up their polluting industries in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only    
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: A

41.If there were no Himalayan ranges, what would have been the most likely geographical impact on India?

1. Much of the country would experience the cold waves from Siberia.

Indo-Gangetic plain would be devoid of such extensive alluvial soils.

3. The pattern of monsoon would be different from what it is at present.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: D

42.The latitudes that pass through Sikkim also pass through

A. Rajasthan
B. Punjab
C. Himachal Pradesh
D. Jammu & Kashmir

ANSWER: A

43.For the Karachi session of Indian National Congress in 1931 presided over by Sardar Patel, who drafted the Resolution on Fundamental Rights and Economic Programme?

A. Mahatma Gandhi
B. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
C. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
D. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

ANSWER: B

44.There are only two known examples of cave paintings of the Gupta period in ancient India. One of these is paintings of Ajanta caves. Where is the other surviving example of Gupta paintings?

A. Bagh caves
B. Ellora caves
C. Lomas Rishi cave
D. Nasik caves

ANSWER: A

45.Consider the following statements :

1. The boundaries of a National Park are defined by legislation.

2. A Biosphere Reserve is declared to conserve a few specific species of flora and fauna.

3. In a Wildlife Sanctuary, limited biotic interference is permitted.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: C

46. Consider the following statements:

1. On the planet Earth, the fresh water available for use amounts to about less than 1 % of the total water found.

2. Of the total fresh water found on the planet Earth 95 % is bound up in polar ice caps and glaciers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER: A

47.Who among the following were official Congress negotiators with Cripps Mission?

A. Mahatma Gandhi and Sardar Patel
B. Acharya J. B. Kripalani and C. Rajagopalachari
C. Pandit Nehru and Maulana Azad
D. Dr. Rajendra Prasad and Rafi Ahmed Kidwai

ANSWER: C

48.In order to comply with TRIPS Agreement, India enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration & Protection) Act, 1999. The difference / differences between a “Trade Mark” and a Geographical Indication is / are:

1. A Trade Mark is an individual or a company’s right whereas a Geographical Indication is a community’s right.

2. A Trade Mark can be licensed whereas a Geographical Indication cannot be licensed,

3. A Trade Mark is assigned to the manufactured goods whereas the Geographical Indication is assigned to the agricultural goods/products and handicrafts only.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: B

49.With reference to Lok Adalats, which of the following statements is correct?

A. Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to settle the matters at pre-litigation stage and not those matters pending before any court
B. Lok Adalats can deal with matters which are civil and not criminal in nature
C. Every Lok Adalat consists of either serving or retired judicial officers only and not any other person
D. None of the statements given above is correct

ANSWER: D

50. The SEZ Act, 2005 which came into effect in February 2006 has certain objectives. In this context, consider the following :

1. Development of infrastructure facilities.

2. Promotion of investment from foreign sources.

3. Promotion of exports of services only.

Which of the above are the objectives of this Act?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: A

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