GS Prelims Previous Years Question Paper- 2012 (Part 1)

1)   In India other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for intended purpose what is the importance of the office of the CAG?

1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the parliament when the president of India declares national emergency/ financial emergency
2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the PAC
3. Information form CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances.
4. While dealing with audit and accounting of govt. companies. CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.

Which of the above are correct?

a. 1, 3 and 4 only
b. 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: C

2) The endeavour of Janine suraksha yojana programme is

1. to promote institutional deliveries
2. to provide monetary assistance to the mother to meet the cost of delivery
3. to provide for wage loss due to pregnancy and confinements

Which of the above are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

3)  The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/ her appointment

a. need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of one of the Houses within six months
b. need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of the Lok Sabha within six months
c. must be a member of one of the Houses of the parliament
d. must be a member of the Lok Sabha

Answer: A

4. With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements:

1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.
2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or  State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

5. Consider the following:

1. Hotels and restaurants
2. Motor Transport undertakings
3. Newspaper Establishments
4. Private Medical Institutions

The Employers of which of the above can have the “ Social Security coverage under Employees State Insurance Scheme?

a. 1, 2 and 3 only
b. 4 only
c. 1, 3 and only 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: D

6. According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following?

1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission
2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee
3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General
3. The Report of the National Commission for the Scheduled Castes

Select the correct answer the using the codes given below:

a. 1 only
b. 2 and 4 only
c. 1, 3 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: C

7. A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and rajyasabha calls for a joint sitting of the parliament during the passage of

1. ordinary legislation
2. money bill
2. constitution amendment bill

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1,2 and 3

Answer: A

8. How do District Rural Development Agencies (DRDAs) help in the reduction of rural poverty in India?

1. DRDAs act as Panchayati Raj Institutions in certain specified backward regions of the country.
2. DRDAs undertake area-specific scientific study of the cause of poverty and malnutrition and prepare detailed remedial measures.
3. DRDAs secure inter-sectoral and inter-departmental coordination and cooperation for effective implementation of anti-poverty programmes.
4. DRDAs watch over and ensure effective utilisation of the funds intended for anti-poverty programme.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

a. 1, 2 and 3 only
b. 3 and 4 only
c. 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: B

9. Which of the following is/ are among the fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution?

1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture

2. To protect the weaker sections from social injustice

3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry

4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 only

c) 1, 3 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: C

10. What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the supreme court of India?
1. While appointing the Supreme Court judges, the president of India has to consult the CJI.
2 the SC judges can be removed by the CJI only
3 the salaries of judges are charged on the consolidated fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote.
4. All appointments of officers and staffs of the SC are made by the govt only after CJI
correct
a 13
b 34
c 4
d 1234

Answer: A

11. To meet its rapidly growing energy demand, some opine that India should pursue research and development on thorium as the future fuel of nuclear energy. In this context what advantage does thorium hold over uranium?
1. Thorium is far more abundant in nature than uranium.
2. On the basis per unit mass of mined mineral, thorium can generate more energy compared to natural uranium.
3. Thorium produces less harmful waste compared to uranium.
Correct
a) 1
b) 23
c) 13
d) 123

Answer: D

12. The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere, because it absorbs
a)  the water vapour of the air and retains its heat
b)  the UV part of the solar radiation
c) all the solar radiations
d)  the infrared part of the solar radiation

Answer: D

13. Which one of the following sets of elements was primarily responsible for the origin of life on the Earth?

a) Hydrogen, Oxygen, Sodium

b) Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitrogen

c) Oxygen, Calcium, Phosphorous

d) Carbon, Hydrogen, Potassium

Answer: B

14. What are the reasons for the people’s resistance to the introduction of BT brinjal in India?
1 BT brinjal has been created by inserting a gene from a soil fungus into its genome.
2 the seeds of BT brinjal are terminator seeds and therefore, the farmers have to buy the seeds before every season from the seed companies.
3 there is an apprehension that the consumption of BT brinjal may have adverse impact on health.
4 there is some concern that the introduction of BT brinjal may have adverse effect on the biodiversity.
Correct
a 1, 2 and 3 only
b 2 and 3 only
c 3 and 4 only
d 1,2,3 and 4

Answer: d

15. Other than resistance to pests, what are the prospects for which genetically engineered plants have been created?

a. To enable them to withstand drought

b. To increase the nutritive value of the produce

c. To enable them to grow and do photosynthesis in spaceships and space stations

d. To increase their shelf life

Answer: c

16. The most effective contribution made by Dadabhai Naoroji to the cause of Indian National Movement was that he

1. Exposed the economic exploitation of India by the British

2. Interpreted the ancient Indian texts stored

3. Stressed the need for eradication of all the social evils before anything else.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: a

17. With reference to Dhrupad, one of the major traditions of India that has been kept alive for centuries, which of the following statements are correct?

1. Dhrupad originated and developed in the Rajput kingdoms during the Mughal Period.

2. Dhrupad is primarily a devotional and spiritual music.

3. Dhrupad Alap users Sanskrit syllables from Mantras.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a)  1 and 2 only

b)  2 and 3 only

c) 1, 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

18. How do you distinguish between kuchipudi and bharatnatyam dances?
1.  Dancers occasionally speaking dialogues i found in kuchipudi dance but not in bharatnatyam.
2 . Dancing on the brass plate by keeping the feet on its edges is a feature of bharatnatyam but have such a form of movements.
Correct
a)  1 only
b)  2 only
c)  both 1 and 2
d)  neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

20. The Rowlatt act aimed at
a) compulsory economic support to war efforts
b) imprisonment without trial and summary procedures for trial
c) suppression of the khilafat movement
d) imposition of restrictions on freedom of the press

Answer: B

21. The Lahore session of the Indian nat. congress 1929 is very important in history because
1 the congress passed a resolution demanding complete independence
2 rift between the extremists and moderates was resolved in that session
3 a resolution was passed rejecting two nation theory in that session
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) None of the above

Answer: A

22. Lord Buddha’s image is sometimes shown with the hand gesture called “Bhumiparsh Mudra”. it symbolizes
a) Buddha’s calling of the earth to watch over Mara and to prevent Mara from disturbing his meditation
b) Buddha’s calling of the earth to witness his purity and chastity despite the temptations of Mara
c ) Buddha’s reminder to his followers that they all arise from the earth and finally dissolve into the earth and thus this life is transitory
d)  both a and b are correct.

Answer: D

23. The religion of early Vedic Aryans was primarily of
a bhakti
b image worship and yajnas
c worship of nature and yajnas
d worship of nature and bhakti

Answer: C

28. Which of the following would include Foreign Direct Investment on India?

1. Subsidiaries of foreign companies in India

2. Majority foreign equity holding in Indian companies

3. Companies exclusively financed by foreign companies

4. Portfolio investment

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) 1, 2 , 3 and 4

b) 2 and 4 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Ans: D

24. Which of the following statements is/ are correct regarding Brahmo Samaj?

1. It opposed idolatry.

2. It denied the need for a priestly class for interpreting the religious texts.

3. It popularized the doctrine that the Vedas are infallible.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

25. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acts as a bankers’ bank. This would imply which of the following?
1 Other bank retains their deposits with the RBI.
2 The RBI lends funds to the commercial banks in times of need.
3 The RBI advises the commercial banks on monetary matters.
Correct
a )2 and 3 only
b )1 and 2 only
c )1 and 3 only
d )1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

26. Under which of the following circumstances may ‘capital gains ‘arise?
1. when there is an increase in the sales of a product
2 .when there is a natural increase in the value of the property owned.
3. when you purchase a painting and there is a growth in its value due to increase in its popularity.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 only
b )2 and 3 only
c )2 only
d )1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

27. Which of the following measures would result in an increase in the money supply in the economy?
1. Purchase of govt securities from the public by the central bank
2. Deposit of currency in commercial banks by the public
3 .borrowing by the govt. from the central bank
4 .Sale of govt. secs. To the public by the central bank
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a )1
b )2 and 4 only
c )1 and 3
d )2, 3 and 4

Answer: C

28. Which of the following would include Foreign Direct Investment on India?

1. Subsidiaries of foreign companies in India

2. Majority foreign equity holding in Indian companies

3. Companies exclusively financed by foreign companies

4. Portfolio investment

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

b) 2 and 4 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer: D

29. Consider the following statement:

The price of any currency in international market is decided by the

1. World Bank

2. Demand for goods/services provided by the country concerned

3. Stability of the government of the concerned country

4. Economic potential of the country in question.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) 1,2 ,3 and 4

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 3 and 4 only

d) 1 and 4 only

Answer: B

30. The basic aim of Lead Bank Scheme is that
a) big banks should try to open offices in each district
b )there should be stiff competition among the various nationalized banks
c )individual banks should adopt particular districts for intensive development
d )all the banks should make intensive efforts to mobilize deposits.

Answer: C

31. Consider the following:

1. Assessment of the land revenue on the basis of nature of the soil and the quality of crops.
2. Use of mobile cannons in warfare

3. Cultivation of tobacco and red chillies

Which of the above was/were introduced into India by the English?
a )1 only
b )1and 2
c )2and 3
d) None

Answer: D

32. With reference to the guilds (Shreni) if ancient India that played a very important role in the country’s economy, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Every guild was registered with the central authority of the state and the king was the chief admen authority on them
2 .The wages, rules of work, standards and prices were fixed by the guild
3. The guild had judicial powers over its own members.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a )1 and 2 only
b )3 only
c )2and 3 only
d )1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

33. The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is based on the scheme provide in the
a) Marley-Minto reforms 1909
b)Montagu Chelmsford act 1919
c) Govt. of India act, 1935
d )Indian independence act 1947

Answer: C

34. Despite having large reserves of coal, why does India import millions of tonnes of coal?
1. It is the policy of India to save its own coal reserves for future and import it from other countries for the present use.
2 most of the power plants in India are coal based and they are not able to get sufficient applies of coal from within the country?
3. Steel companies need large quantity of coking coal which has to be imported
correct

a)      1 only

b)      2 and 3 only

c)       1 and 3 only

d)      1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

35. A person stood alone in a desert on a dark night and wanted to reach his village which was situated 5km east of the point where he was standing .He had no instruments to find the direction but he located the polestar, the most convenient way now to reach his village is to walk in the
a) facing the polestar
b) opposite to the polestar
c) keeping the polestar to his left
d) keeping the polestar to his right

Answer: C

36. Recently there has been a concern over the short supply of a group of elements called rare earth metals. Why?
1. China, which is the largest producer of these elements, has imposed some restrictions on their export.
2 Other than china, Australia, Canada, Chile, these elements are not found in any country.
3 Rare earth metals are essential for the manufacture of various kinds of electronic items and there is growing demand for these elements.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a 1 only
b 2 and 3 only
c 1 and 3 only
4 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

37) Consider the following protected areas:

1. Bandipur

2. Bhitarkanika

3. Manas

4. Sunderbans

Which of the above are declared Tiger Reserves?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1, 3 and 4 only

c) 2, 3 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: B

38. Consider the following statements:

1. The duration of the monsoon decreases from southern India to northern India.

2. The amount of annual rainfall in the northern plains of India decreases from east to west.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

39. Which one of the following is the characteristic climate of the Tropical Savannah Region?
a Rainfall throughout the year
b Rainfall in winter only
c An extremely short dry season
a A definite dry and wet season

Answer: D

40. In which one among the following categories of protected areas in India are local people not allowed to collect and use the biomass?
a Biosphere reserves
b National parks
c Wetlands declared under Ramsar convention
d Wildlife sanctuaries

Answer: B

41. Consider the following kinds of organisms:

1.  Bat
2.  Bee
3.  Bird
which of the above is/are pollinating agent/agents?
a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

42. Which one of the following groups of animals belongs to the category of endangered species?
a. Great Indian bustard, Musk Deer, Red Panda and Asiatic Wild Ass
b. Kashmir Stag, Cheetah, Blue Bull, GIB
c. Snow Leopard, Swamp Deer, Rhesus Monkey, Saras (Crane)
d. Lion Tailed Macaque, Blue Bull, Hanuman Langur, Cheetah

Answer: A

43. Consider the following statements:

If there were no phenomenon of capillarity
1 it would be difficult to use a kerosene lamp
2 one would not be able to use a straw to consume a soft drink
3 the blotting paper would paper would fail to function
4 the big trees that we see around would not have grown on the earth
Which of the following statements given above are correct?

a) 1, 2 and 3 only

b) 1, 3 and 4 only

c) 2 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: B

44. The Millenium Ecosystem Assessment describes the following major categories of ecosystem services-provisioning, supporting, regulating, preserving and cultural. Which one of the following is supporting service?

a) Production of food and water

b) Control of climate and disease

c) Nutrient Cycling and crop pollinator

d) Maintenance of diversity

Answer: C

45. What is the difference between the antelopes Oryx and Chiru?
a )Oryx is adapted to live in hot and arid areas whereas Chiru is adapted to live in steppes and semi-desert areas of cold high mountains
b) Oryx is poached for its antlers whereas Chiru is poached for its musk
c )Oryx exists in western India only whereas Chiru exists in north east India only.
d )None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct.

Answer: A

46. Which of the following can be threats to the biodiversity of a geographical area?
1 Global warming
2 Fragmentation of habitat
3 Invasion of alien species
4 Promotion of vegetarianism
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) 1, 2 and 3 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

47. Consider the following:

1. Black necked crane

2. Cheetah

3. Flying squirrel

4. Snow leopard

Which of the above are naturally found in India?

a) 1, 2 and 3 only

b) 1, 3 and 4 only

c) 2 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: B

48. Consider the following agricultural practices:

1. Contour bunding

2. Relay cropping

3. Zero tillage

In the context of global climate change, which of the above helps/help in carbon sequestration/ storage in the soil?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 3 only

c) 1, 2 and 3

d) None of them

Answer: B

49. What would happen if phytoplankton of an ocean is completely destroyed for some reason?

1. The ocean as a carbon sink would be adversely affected.

2. The food chains in the ocean would be adversely affected.

3. The density of ocean water would drastically decrease.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 only

c) 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

50. Vultures used to be very common in Indian countryside some years ago are rarely seen nowadays. This is attributed to

a) the destruction of their nesting sites by new invasive species

b) a drug used by cattle owners for treating their diseased cattle

c) Scarcity of food available to them

d) a widespread, persistant and fatal disease among them

Answer: B

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