UPPSC Prelims- 2015: Questions and Answers with Complete Explanations (Part-1) (Q: 1 to 50)

UPPSC Prelims-2015: Questions and Answers with Complete Explanations(Part-1) (Q. 1 to 50) (Set-B)

(1) Which one of the fallowing is a pollution indicator plant?

a. Algae

b. Fungi

c. Lichen

d. Fern

Ans: c

  • Lichens are very sensitive to sulphur dioxide pollution in the air. Lichens are widely used as environmental indicators or bio-indicators. If air is very badly polluted with sulphur dioxide there may be no lichens present, just green algae may be found. If the air is clean, shrubby, hairy and leafy lichens become abundant.

(2) Which one of the following energy sources is the best in keeping environment clean?

a. Petroleum products

b. Forest products

c. Nuclear produces

d. Solar cells

Ans: d

(3) Which of the following has evergreen forests?

a. Malwa Plateau

b. eastern Ghat 

c. Western Ghat 

d. Chhotanagpur Plateau

Ans: c

  • The landscape of Western Ghat comprises of variety of eco-systems – ranging from lush green to moist evergreen forests.

(4) Which Indian State has the highest area under sugarcane cultivation?

a. Maharashtra

b. U.P.

c. Andhra Pradesh

d. M.P.

Ans: b

  • Uttar Pradesh has the largest area almost 50 per cent of the cane area in the country, Uttar Pradesh suffers from lowest yield per hectare of sugar despite having the highest area under sugarcane cultivation.

(5) The sudden brust of which of the following lakes was one of the major factors of flash flood in the Mandakini river in June, 2013?

a. Chorabari lake

b. Hemkund lake

c. Kedar lake

d. Vasuki lake

Ans: a

  • On 16 and 17 June 2013, heavy rains together with moraine dammed lake (Chorabari Lake) burst caused flooding of Saraswati and Mandakini Rivers in Rudraprayag district of Uttarakhand

(6) Match the following:

National Parks     State

A. Dachigam      1. Andhra Pradesh

B. Papikonda       2. Jammu and Kashmir

C. Sariska            3. Rajsthan

D. Bandipur         4. Karnataka

Ans: A-2, B- 1, C- 3, D-4

(7) The most significant aspect of biodiversity is

a. Flood

b. Drug

c. Industrial use

d. Maintenance of ecosystem

Ans: d

(8) Which of the following river is called the Ganga of South

a. Cauvery

b. Krishna

c. Godavari

d. Narmada

Ans: c

  • The Godavari River is known as ‘Dakshina Ganga‘ i.e.  the “Ganga of south India”.

(9) Which one of following coasts of India locate between Krishna delta and Cape Comorin?

a. Coromandel Coast 

b. North Circar

c. Malabar

d. Konkan Coast

Ans: a

  • The Coromandel Coast is the southeastern coast region of the Indian Subcontinent, between the Eastern Ghats and the Bay of Bengal of the Indian Ocean.

(10) Assertion (A) : Yamuna become a dead between Delhi and Agra during most of the year.

Reason (R) : Yamuna is a non-perennial river

Ans: (A) is true and (R) is false

(11) Which one of the following stats has the highest difference between literary rates of male and female a/c to Census 2011?

a. Kerala

b. Uttar Pradesh

c. Mizoram

d. Gujarat

Ans: b

  • UP: Male 79.24%, Female: 59.26 %

(12) Which of the following is a Volcanic Island of India

a. Little Andaman

b. Little Nicobar

c. Great Nicobar

d. Barren Island

Ans: d

  • Barren Island is located in the Andaman Sea, one of the most easterly of the Andaman Islands. It is the only confirmed active volcano in South Asia.

(13) In India more than half of production of Soyabean comes from

a. Madhya Pradesh

b. Andhra Pradesh

c. Maharashtra

d. Rajasthan

Ans: a

  • Madhya Pradesh leads in the production of Soyabean, gram, linseed, green pea, garlic and coriander.

(14) Which one of the following dam is built across Betwa river?

a. Luv Kush Barrage

b. Rihand Dam

c. Sharda Barrage

d. Rajghat Dam

Ans: d

  • Rajghat Dam is an Inter-state Dam project of the Government of Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh being constructed on Betwa River about 14 km from Historical place Chanderi in Madhya Pradesh and 22 km from Lalitpur in Uttar Pradesh
  • Rihand Dam is a concrete gravity dam located at Pipri in Sonbhadra District in Uttar Pradesh. Its reservoir area is on the border of Madhya pradesh and Uttar Pradesh. This reservoir is known as Govind Ballabh Pant Sagar. It is on the Rihand River which is the tributary of the Son River.
  • Lav Khush Barrage, or Ganges Barrage this bridge across the Ganges lies at Azad Nagar-Nawabganj in Kanpur.
  • The Sharda Barrage on the Sharda river, is nearly 28 km from Lakhimpur city in Uttar Pradesh

(15) Which one of the following countries has the longest coastal line

a. India

b. Canada

c. Austrailia

d. Brazil

Ans: b

  • First: Canada : 202,080 km
  • Second: Indonesia : 54,716 km

(16) Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

a. Boiling lake — Dominica

b. Five Flower lake — Mangolia

c. Red Lagoon — Bolivia

d. Great Slave lake — Canada

Ans: b

  • The pristine water of FiveFlower Lake, is the pride of Jiuzhaigon National Park in China

(17) Which one of the following is the highest volcanic mountain of the world?

a. Mount Pinatubo

b. Mount Kilimanjaro

c. Mount Taal

d. Mount Cotopaxi

Ans: d

  • Cotopaxi is a potentially active stratovolcano in the Andes Mountains. It is the second highest summit in the country, reaching a height of 5,897 m (19,347 ft). Some consider it the world’s highest active volcano

(18) Which one of the following is called ‘Pearl of Siberia’ ?

a. Baikal Lake

b. Great Bear Lake

c. Karda Lake

d. Lincanbur Lake

Ans: a

  • The Baikal lake, nicknamed “the Pearl of Siberia”

(19) For the location of which one of the following industries, the availability of raw material is not primary consideration?

a. Iron and Steel

b. Sugar

c. Electronics

d. cement

Ans: c

  • Footloose industries are not tied to a particular location. They include high-tech industries and are located near motorway junctions or on the edges of towns and cities in business parks. The products are often electronics and computer components.

(20) Which pair of the following is not correctly matched?

a. The queen of Adriatic sea — Rome

b. Lorraine coal field — France

c. West midfield — Biringham

d. Tula — Russia

Ans: a

  • Queen of the Adriatic is Venice

(21) Match the following:

volcano              Country

A. Sabankaya — 1. Italy

B. Mount Etna — 2. Peru

C. Colina — 3. Indonesia

D. Merapi — Mexico

Ans: A – 2 , B – 1, C – 4, D – 3

(22) Which one of the following is called as the ‘Land of Morning Calm’?

a. Philippines

b. japan

c. Taiwan

d. Korea

Ans: d

  • Korea as a whole is referred to as Choson (Land of the Morning Calm”).The title was most suited to South Korea because of its spellbinding natural beauty of picturesque high mountains and clear waters and its splen-did tranquillity, particularly in the morning which further confirmed the title on South Korea as the ‘Land of Morning Calm‘.

(23) World’s largest reserve of Uranium is found in

a. Australia

b. Brazil

c. Canada

d. South Africa

Ans: a

  • Australia 31.0% Brazil 5.2% Canada 9.0% South Africa 5.5% of world share.

(24) To which of the following racial groups the natives of North America belong?

a. Austric

b. Caucasoid

c. Mongoloid

d. Negroid

Ans: c

  • Australoid peoples ranged throughout Indonesia, Malaysia, Australia, New Guinea, Melanesia, the Andaman Islands and the Indian subcontinent, as well as parts of the Middle East.
  • Mongoloid is the general physical type of some or all of the populations of East Asia, Central Asia, Southeast Asia, Eastern Russia, the Arctic, the Americas, parts of the Pacific Islands, and some northeastern parts of South Asia.
  • Caucasian race (also Caucasoid or Europid) has historically been used to describe the physical or biological type of some or all of the populations of Europe, North Africa, the Horn of Africa, Western Asia, Central Asia, and South Asia.
  • Negroid (also known as Congoid) is a term that is used by forensic and physical anthropologists to refer to individuals and populations that share certain morphological and skeletal traits that are frequent among most populations in Sub-Saharan Africa.

(25) Which of the following Articles of Indian Constitution vests in the President of India the power to issue ordinances?

a. Article 74

b. Article 78

c. Article 123

d. Article 124(2)

Ans: c

  • Article 123 of the Constitution grants the President certain law making powers to promulgate Ordinances when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session and hence it is not possible to enact laws in the Parliament.

(26) Match the following:

A. Equality before Law — 1. Art 42

B. Right to Work — 2. Art 45

C. Just and Humane condition of work — 3. Art 14

D. Free and compulsory education for children — 4. Art 41

Ans: A- 3, B – 4, C – 1, D – 2

(27) Which of the following countries is the largest producer of Bauxite?

a. Guinea

b. Austrailia

c. India

d. Jamaica

  • Australia was the top producer of bauxite with almost one-third of the world’s production, followed by China, Brazil, Indonesia, India, and Guinea.

(28) Who among the following was the first tribal peaker of Lok Sabha?

a G.V. Mavalkar

b. G.M.C. Balyogi

c. Manohar Joshi

d. P.A. Sangma

Ans: d

  • Purno Agitok Sangma is an Indian politician who was Speaker of Lok Sabha from 1996 to 1998

(29) Eleventh schedule of the Constitution of India is related to

a. Panchayati raj

b. Municipaity

c. Centre-State Relation

d. None of these

Ans: a

  • Eleventh Schedule (Article 243-D) —Panchayat Raj (rural local government).

(30) Which of the following statements is true about right to information?

a. It is a Political right

b. it is a Constitutional right

c. It is a Legal right

d. It is a Social right

Ans: b and c

  • Right to Information is a part of fundamental rights under Article 19(1) of the Constitution. Article 19 (1) says that every citizen has freedom of speech and expression. As early as in 1976, the Supreme Court said in the case of Raj Narain vs State of UP, that people cannot speak or express themselves unless they know. Therefore, right to information is embedded in article 19.
  • RTI is also a legal right in India as provided by RTI Act, 2005

(31) While deciding any question relating the disqualification of a member of Parliament, the President shall obtain opinion of

a. Chief Justice of India

b. Election Commission of India

c. Attorney general of India

d. Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Ans: b

As per Representation of the People Act. 1951, President shall obtain the opinion of the Election Commission and shall act according to such opinion.

(32) Who among the following was member of Lok Sabha during his Pie Ministership?

a. Deve Gowda

b. I.K. Gujral

b. Chandrashekhar

d. dr. Manmohan Singh

Ans: b

  • He was MP from Balia

(33) Who among the following was the chairman of the fourth State Finance Commission of U.P. ?

a. J.L. Bajaj

b. S.A.T. Rizvi

c. T.N. Dhar

d. Atul Gupta

Ans: d

(34) Which one of the following statements about a State FinanceComission is true?

a. It is an Informal body

b. It is a Constitutional body

c. It is an administrative body

d. None of the above

  • Article 243I of the Indian Constitution prescribes that the Governor of a State shall, as soon as may be within one year from the commencement of the Constitution (Seventy-third Amendment) Act, 1992, and thereafter at the expiration of every fifth year, constitute a Finance Commission to review the financial position of the Panchayats and to make several recommendations to the Governor

(35) Who among the following constitute “Finance Commission” to review financial position of Panchayats?

a. Chief Minister of the concerned State

b. Finance Minister of the concerned State

c. Governor of the concerned State

d. Panchayati Raj Minister of the concerned State

Ans: c

  • Article 243I of the Indian Constitution prescribes that the Governor of a State shall, as soon as may be within one year from the commencement of the Constitution (Seventy-third Amendment) Act, 1992, and thereafter at the expiration of every fifth year, constitute a Finance Commission

(36) The appointment of a Governor in a State is made as per the provision in the Constitutio under article

a. 153

b. 154

c. 155

d. 156

Ans: c

  • Art 155. Appointment of Governor The Governor of a State shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal

(37) Who among the following is considered to bee the Father of Local Self Government in India?

a. Lord Dalhousie

b. Lord Canning

c. Lord Curzon

d. Lord Ripon

Ans: d

(38) Assertion (A) : Under Article 368, the Parliament can amend any part of the Constitution.

Reason (R) : The Parliament is the Supreme Legislative body elected by the people of India

And: (A) is false, but (R) is correct

  • Parliament can not amend basic structure of the Constitution

(39) Article 40 of the Constitution of India advises the State to work for

a. Uniform Civil Code

b. Organization of Village Panchayats

c. Constitution of Municipalities

d. Living Wages for Workers

Ans: b

(40) The idea of preamble has been borrowed in Indian COnstitution from the Constitution of

a. Italy

b. Canada

c. France

d. U.S.A

Ans: d

(41) Which of the following Articles cannot be suspeded during the national emergncy?

a. Art 14 and 15

b. Art 19 and 20

c. Art 21 and 22

d. Art 20 and 21

Ans: d

(42) Who among the following shall have the right of audience in all courts i the territory of India in performance of his duties?

a. Advocate general

b. Attorney general

c. Additional Advocate general

d. None

Ans: b

(43) Assertion (A) : The Constitution of India has become the longest one

Reason (R) : The chapter on Fundamental Rights has been borrowed from the model of American Constitution.

Ans: Both (A) and (B) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(44) Which of the following is not relted to Union-Stat relations in India?

a. Sarkaria Commission

b. rajmannar Commission

c. Indrajit Committee

d. Punchhi Commmission

Ans: c

(45) Which of the following feature of citizenship in India is correct?

a. Dual citizenship of the State and Nation

b. Single citizenship of a State

c. Single citizenship of whole of India

d. Dual citizenship of India and another Country

Ans: c

(46) In which Article of Indian Constitution, provision for Fundamental Duties’ has been made by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act?

a. Art 50

b. Art 51A

c. Art 52

d. Art 53

Ans: b

(47) In which of the following cases the Supreme Court observed that CBI is a caged parrot

a. Rail Board Bribery Case

b. Vineet Narayani Vs. Union of India

c. 2G Spectrum Scam case

d. Coal Gate Scam Case

Ans: d

(48) The Planning Commission has been abolished by the Prime Minister

a. Narendra Modi

b. Morarji Deai

c. Atal Bihari Vajpayee

d. I.K. Gujral

Ans: a

(49) National voters day is celebrated on

a. 15th Jan

b.25th Jan

c. 15th Feb

d. 25th Feb

Ans: b

(50) ‘Pivot to Asia’ is the strategy of the foreign policy of

a. India

b. Japan

c. China

d. U.S.A

Ans: d

For Part 2 (Q. 51 to 100): Click Here

For Part 3 (Q 100 to 150): Click Here

For Solution and Answer Key of General Studies Paper 2  of UP-PSC- 2015: Click Here

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6 thoughts on “UPPSC Prelims- 2015: Questions and Answers with Complete Explanations (Part-1) (Q: 1 to 50)”

  1. “Kings are made for the people, not people for their Kings” said by
    Dadabhai Naoroji the grand old man of Indian National Movement raised
    this slogan at the beginning stage of Congress. The early nationalist leaders saw
    the internalisation and indegenisation of political democracy as one of their main
    objectives. They based their politics on the doctrine of the sovereignty

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