BPSC Prelims- 2015: Solved Paper with Explanations

BPSC Prelims- 2015, Solved Paper with Explanations

1. Who founded the Pagal Panth?

(A) Bulleh Shah

(B) Karam Shah

(C) Yaduvendra Singh

(D) Swami Sahajananda

  • Karam Shah was the founder of the Pagal Panth – a semi-religious sect having influence in the northern districts of Bengal. An activist fervor to the sect was imparted by Tipu, the son and successor of Karam Shah.

2. Who were the Faraizis?

(A) Followers of Haji Shariatullah

(B) Followers of Dadu

(C) Followers of the Arya Samaj

(D) Followers of the Muslim League

  • The Faraizi Movement was founded in 1818] by Haji Shariatullah alongside a number of Bengali Muslims. After returning from Mecca (hence being given the title Hajji) after 19 years, Haji Shariat Ullah, seeing the degraded Muslims of Bengal, called on them to give up un-Islamic practices and act upon their duties as Muslims

3. The correct geographical location for the Ramosi Uprising was

(A) Western India

(B) Eastern Ghats

(C) Eastern India 

(D) Western Ghats

  • The Ramosis, the hill tribes in the Western Chats, resented British rule and the British pattern of administration. In 1822, under Chittur Singh, they revolted and plundered the country around Satara. There were revolts again during 1825-1826 and the area remained disturbed till 1829.
  • The disturbance erupted again in 1840-1841 over deposition and banishment of Raja Pratap Singh of Satara in September 1839. A superior Britishh force restored order in the area.

4. The Waghera Uprising happened in

(A) Surat

(B) Poona

(C) Calicut

(D) Baroda

  • Besides the resentment against the foreign rule, the exactions of the Gaekward of Baroda supported by the British Government compelled the Waghera chief to take up arms. The Wagheras carried on inroads with British territory during 1818-1819.
  • A peace treaty was concluded in November 1820.

5. In order to control the media in India, ‘Acts’ were passed in

(A) 1835, 1867, 1878, 1908

(B) 1854, 1864, 1872, 1910

(C) 1854, 1872, 1908, 1910

(D) 1867, 1908, 1910, 1919

  • Press Act of 1835 by Metcalfe
  • Registration Act, 1867
  • Vernacular Press Act, 1878
  • Newspaper (Incitement to Offences) Act, 1908

6. The process of split in the Congress in the early years of the twentieth century began over

(A) strategies of the Congress Movement

(B) objectives of the Congress Movement

(C) participation of the people in the Congress Movement 

(D) All of the above

  • Surat Split is mainly known for separation of congress partymen into moderates and extremists at the surat session of congress in 26 December 1907. The extremists were led by Lokmanya Tilak, Lajpat Rai and Bipin Chandra Pal and the moderates were led by Gopal Krishna Gokhale, Pherozeshah Mehta and Surendranath Banerjee.
  • The divided Congress re-united in the crucial Lucknow session of congress in 1916, with Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Gopal Krishna Gokhale adorning the stage together once again.

7. ‘New Lamps for Old’ was a series of articles (1893-94) that criticized the Congress for being out of touch with the `proletariat’.
Who was the author of these articles?

(A) Aurobindo Ghose

(B) A. 0. Hume

(C) G. K. Gokhale

(D) B. G. Tilak

  • In a series of articles published in the Indu Prakash in 1893 and significantly entitled ‘New Lamps for Old’, Aurobindo expressed his ideas regarding the contemporary situation.

8. Fill in the blanks : The Nehru Report was drafted by a committee headed by ___  and the subject was  ___

(A) Motilal Nehru and Jawaharlal Nehru; India’s relationship with the British Empire

(B) Jawaharlal Nehru; Local Self-Government in India

(C) Motilal Nehru; Constitutional arrangements in India

(D) Jawaharlal Nehru; Constitu-tional arrangements in India

9. What was the common relationship between Katherine Mayo, Aldous Huxley, Charles Andrews and William Digby?

(A) They wrote commentaries on the condition of India during the British rule

(B) They were supporters of the Indian National Movement

(C) They were opponents of the Indian National Movement

(D) They were friends of Mahatma Gandhi

10. Who penned the following lines? “Sarfaroshi ki tamanna ab hamare dil me hai/Dekhna hai zor kitna baju-e-qatil me hai.”

(A) Bismil

(B) Rajguru

(C) Bhagat Singh

(D) Azad

  • Sarfaroshi ki Tamanna is a patriotic poem written in Urdu by Ram Prasad Bismil, who was involved in motivating the Indian Independence Movement

11. Who raised the demand of `Complete Independence’ for the first time in 1921?

(A) Maulana Muhammad Ali

(B) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

(C) Mahatma Gandhi 

(D) Maulana Hasrat Mohani

  • Hasrat Mohani participated in the struggle for Indian Independence, and was jailed for many years by British authorities. He was the first person in Indian History who demanded ‘Complete Independence’ (Azadi-e-Kaamil) in 1921 as he presided over an annual session of All India Muslim League.

12. Identify the years those are closest to the founding of the Communist Party of India and the RSS respectively.

(A) 1915, 1914

(B) 1925, 1925

(C) 1928, 1925

(D) 1925, 1929

13. Swami Sahajananda Saraswati formed the All India United Kisan Sabha with the demand for the ‘nationalization of land and waterways’

(A) just before his death

(B) at a very young age

(C) in the 1930s

(D) in the 1920s

  • All India Kisan Sabha, an important peasant movement formed by Sahajanand Saraswati in 1936

14. Fill in the blank : In __ the rights of the tenants on land in Bengal and Bihar were given by the Bengal Tenancy Act.

(A) 1885

(B) 1886

(C) 1889

(D) 1900

  • The Bengal Tenancy Act 1885 was an enactment of the Bengal government that defined the rights of zamindars (lords) and their tenants in response to a widespread peasant revolt that threatened the stability of the British Colonial Government.

15. Which Round Table Conference held in 1932?

(A) First

(B) Second

(C) Third

(D) Fourth

16. One of the popular beliefs in Bihar during the Non-Cooperation Movement of 1920-22 was that victory would come to them because Gandhi

(A) was the epitome of Dharma

(B) was an accomplished politician

(C) knew the ways to defeat the English

(D) knew English

17. Who among the following was/were peasant leader(s) from Bihar?

I. Swami Vidyananda

II. Swami Sahajananda

III. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Choose the correct option from the following.

(A) I and II

(B) II and III

(C) I and III

(D) II only

18. In which area was Rahul Sankrityayan active in the Non-Cooperation Movement of 1920?

(A) Chhapra

(B) Delhi

(C) Lucknow

(D) Patna

  • Mahapandit Rahul Sankrityayan (9 April 1893 – 14 April 1963), who is called the Father of Hindi Travel literature, was one of the most widely travelled scholars of India, spending forty-five years of his life on travels away from his home. He became a Buddhist monk and eventually took up Marxist Socialism.
  • Sankrityayan was also an Indian nationalist, having been arrested and jailed for three years for creating anti-British writings and speeches

19. Which of the following statements is correct?

(A) In 1857, the Maharajas Darbhanga, Dumraon and Hatwa and their fellow landlords helped the English with men and money

(B) In 1857, the Maharajas of Darbhanga, Dumraon and Hatwa and their fellow landlords helped the English with men but not with money

(C) In 1857, the Maharajas of Darbhanga, Dumraon and Hatwa and their fellow landlords helped the English with money but not with men

(D) In 1857, the Maharajas of Darbhanga, Dumraon and Hatwa and their fellow landlords opposed the English

20. Who highlighted the plight of the peasants of Champaran by writing under pseudonyms like Dukhi’, Dukhi Atma’, Dukhi Hridaya’?

(A) Peer Muhammad Moonis

(B) Rajendra Prasad

(C) Sahajananda Saraswati

(D) S. N. Sinha

  • Much before the advent of Gandhi on the Champaran scene, Peer Md. Munis had played a very important and significant role as a local correspondent of the Hindi weekly, later daily, Pratap (Kanpur)
  • Munis was a fearless journalist, and creative writer in Hindi literature, one of the founders of the Bihar Hindi Sahitya Sammelan (founded in Sonepur in 1919; and President of its 15th session, 1937, Arrah). For his relentless efforts at exposing the horrific sufferings of the Champaran peasantry at the hands of the European planters, he was dismissed.

21. Let f:R—>R be defined by f(x) = x2 – 3x + 2. Then the value  of f(f(5)) is

(A) 90 

(B) 100 

(C) 110

(D) 80

22. If 2″ C3 • “C2 = 12 :1, then the value of n is

(A) 6

(B) 5

(C) 4

(D) 3

23. The variance of 7, 7, 7, 7, 7 is

(A) 7

(B) 0

(C) 2

(D) 7.5

24. Given, log 2 = 0-30103. Then log 5 is

(A) 0.2301

(B) 0.5302

(C) 0.720

(D) 0.6987

25. The solution of the equation 2x +10  0 is given by

(A) x -8

(B) x -5

(C) x -9

(D) x -10

26. The series  1/2 + 5/6 + 7/6 + ……. is

(A) arithmetic series

(B) geometric series

(C) harmonic series

(D) exponential series

27. A triangle has vertices (1, 6), (3, 0) and (-3, -7). Its area in square units is

(A) 10

(B) 25

(C) 30

(D) 40

28. The angle between two lines 3x+y-7=0 and x+2y+9=0 will be
(A) 60°

(B) 45°

(C) 30°

(D) 90°

29. If tan 60′ = then the value of sec 60′ is

(A) 4

(B) 3

(C) 2

(D) 1

30. A circle has area 154 square units. Its diameters have equations 2x – 3y +12 = 0 and x+ 4y – 5 = 0. Then the radius of the circle is

(A) 8 units

(B) 7 units

(C) 6 units

(D) 5 units

(31) Cloves are obtained from which of the following parts of the plant?

(A) Dried leaves

(B) Dried stems

(C) Dried seeds

(D) Dried flower buds

  • Cloves are the aromatic flower buds of a tree. They are native to the Maluku Islands in Indonesia, and are commonly used as a spice. Cloves are commercially harvested primarily in Indonesia, India, Madagascar, Zanzibar, Pakistan, Sri Lanka and Tanzania.

32. Oncogenes are associated with

(A) tuberculosis

(B) hepatitis

(C) cancer

(D) typhoid

  • An oncogene is a gene that has the potential to cause cancer. In tumor cells, they are often mutated or expressed at high levels.

33. Which is the most reactive metal?

(A) Sodium

(B) Calcium

(C) Iron 

(D) Potassium

34. Who synthesized the DNA in vitro?

(A) Arthur Kornberg

(B) Robert Hooke

(C) Edward Jenner

(D) Joseph Lister

35. What was the fissionable material used in the bombs dropped at Nagasaki (Japan) in the year 1945?

(A) Sodium

(B) Potassium 

(C) Plutonium

(D) Uranium

  • Fat Man” was the codename for the type of atomic bomb that was detonated over the Japanese city of Nagasaki by the United States on 9 August 1945. It was the second of only two nuclear weapons ever used in warfare, the first being Little Boy (dropped on the Japanese city of Hiroshima on August 6, 1945 ).
  • Fat Man was an implosion-type nuclear weapon with a plutonium core.

36. The scientist who first discovered that the earth revolves round the sun was

(A) Newton

(B) Dalton 

(C) Copernicus

(D) Einstein

37. Cosmic rays

(A) are charged particles

(B) are uncharged particles

(C) can be charged as well as uncharged

(D) None of the above

  • Cosmic rays are energetic, subatomic particles that arrive from outside the Earth’s atmosphere. The lowest energy cosmic rays are produced by ordinary stars like the Sun. For example, during a solar flare many particles are ejected from the Sun. When these solar particles interact with the Earth’s magnetic field, they tend to spiral into the Earth’s magnetic poles where they excite the gas in the atmosphere causing it to glow.  This is  observed as Aurora, or the Northern/Southern Lights.
  • Composed primarily of high-energy protons and atomic nuclei, they are of mysterious origin. They have positive charge.

38. Which of the following elements is found in all organic compounds?

(A) Carbon

(B) Calcium

(C) Nitrogen

(D) Oxygen

39. Which of the following can cause  cancer as well as cure it  in depending upon its intensity and use?

(A) Tobacco

(B) Alcohol

(C) Ionized radiation

(D) Ultraviolet rays

  • Exposure to ionizing radiation causes damage to living tissue, and can result in mutation, radiation sickness, cancer, and death.
  • In general, ionizing radiation is harmful and potentially lethal to living beings but can have health benefits in radiation therapy for the treatment of cancer and thyrotoxicosis.

40. The total volume of blood in a normal adult human being is

(A) 5-6 litres

(B) 3-4 litres

(C) 8-10 litres

(D) 10-12 litres

41. Typhoid and cholera are typical examples of

(A) infectious diseases

(B) airborne diseases

(C) waterborne diseases

(D) None of the above

  • Waterborne diseases are caused by pathogenic microorganisms that most commonly are transmitted in contaminated fresh water. Infection commonly results during bathing, washing, drinking, in the preparation of food, or the consumption of food thus infected.
  • Typhoid: Ingestion of water contaminated with feces of an infected person (spread by Salmonella enterica bacterium)
  • Cholera: Drinking water contaminated with the bacterium (Spread by the bacterium Vibrio cholerae)

42. Energy is stored in liver and muscles in the form of

(A) carbohydrate

(B) fat

(C) protein

(D) glycogen

  • Glycogen is a multibranched polysaccharide of glucose that serves as a form of energy storage in animals and fungi. The polysaccharide structure represents the main storage form of glucose in the body.
  • In humans, glycogen is made and stored primarily in the cells of the liver and the muscles, and functions as the secondary long-term energy storage (with the primary energy stores being fats held in adipose tissue). Muscle glycogen is converted into glucose by muscle cells, and liver glycogen converts to glucose for use throughout the body including the central nervous system.

43. Who discovered bacteria?

(A) Fleming

(B) Lamble

(C) Temin

(D) Leeuwenhoek

44. The reason of large-scale diversity among the organisms is

(A) adaptation

(B) cooperation

(C) mutation

(D) polyploidy

  • An adaptation, also called an adaptive trait, is a trait with a current functional role in the life history of an organism that is maintained and evolved by means of natural selection. Adaptation refers to both the current state of being adapted and to the dynamic evolutionary process that leads to the adaptation. Adaptations enhance the fitness and survival of individuals.
  • A mutation is a permanent change of the nucleotide sequence of the genome of an organism, virus, or extrachromosomal DNA or other genetic elements. Mutations result from damage to DNA which is not repaired or to RNA genomes, errors in the process of replication, or from the insertion or deletion of segments of DNA by mobile genetic elements.
  • Polyploid cells and organisms are those containing more than two paired sets of chromosomes. Most species whose cells have nuclei (Eukaryotes) are diploid, meaning they have two sets of chromosomes—one set inherited from each parent. However, polyploidy is found in some organisms and is especially common in plants. In addition, polyploidy also occurs in some tissues of animals that are otherwise diploid, such as human muscle tissues.

45. What is vermiculture?

(A) The science of raising worms

(B) The science of studying animals

(C) The science of studying fishes

(D) The science of killing worms

  • ‘Vermiculture’ literally means worm growing or worm farming. When earthworms are used primarily for the production of compost, the practice is referred to as vermicomposting.

46. The smallest organism, capable of autonomous growth and reproduction, is

(A) virus

(B) bacteria

(C) mycoplasma

(D) bacteriophage

  • Mycoplasma refers to a genus of bacteria that lack a cell wall around their cell membrane.Without a cell wall, they are unaffected by many common antibiotics such as penicillin or other beta-lactam antibiotics that target cell wall synthesis. They can be parasitic or saprotrophic. Several species are pathogenic in humans
  • Mycoplasma are the smallest bacterial cells yet discovered, can survive without oxygen and are typically about 0.1 µm in diameter.

47. The first human heart transplant was performed in

(A) America

(B) England

(C) South Africa

(D) France

48. The average blood flow through kidneys per minute is

(A) 1000 cc

(B) 1200 cc

(C) 200 cc

(D) 500 cc

49. A plant bud is

(A) an embryonic shoot

(B) an embryonic leaf

(C) an endosperm

(D) a seed

  • A bud is an undeveloped or embryonic shoot and normally occurs in the axil of a leaf or at the tip of the stem.

50. Which of the following gases is used in cigarette lighters?

(A) Butane

(B) Methane

(C) Propane

(D) Radon

  • Butane, a highly flammable, colorless, easily liquefied gas used in cigarette lighters

51. The Union Health Minister launched Mental Health Policy on

(A) 20th October, 2014

(B) 10th October, 2014

(C) 5th October, 2014

(D) 11th July, 2014

52. Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana on

(A) 11th October, 2014

(B) 10th November, 2014

(C) 26th August, 2014

(D) 15th August, 2014

53. The 11th Metropolis Congress was organized in Hyderabad in

(A) September 2013

(B) January 2014 

(C) October 2014

(D) November 2014

54. In which area was the Indo-US military exercise Yudh Abhyas 2014′ held?

(A) Solan (Himachal Pradesh)

(B) Gairsen (Uttarakhand)

(C) Ranikhet (Uttarakhand)

(D) Poonch (Jammu and Kashmir)

55. Which of the following groups of political parties could not win a single seat in the 16th Lok Sabha Election?


(B) SP, BSP, National Conference, RLD


(D) DMK, RLD, National Conference, BSP

56. President Pranab Mukherjee on 7th October, 2014 presented the Lal Bahadur Shastri National Award for excellence in Public Administration, Academics and Management for the year 2014 to

(A) V. Sampath

(B) Dr. A. S. Pillai

(C) Arvind Mayaram

(D) Ajit Dobhal

  • The Lal Bahadur Shastri National Award is an annual prestigious award instituted from Lal Bahadur Shastri Institute of Management, Delhi. This consists of a cash award of 500,000 rupees plus a citation and a plaque.
  • The award was started in 1999 and is provided to a business leader, management practitioner, public administrator, educator or institution builder for his/her sustained individual contributions for achievements of high professional order and excellence.This award is given by the President of India
  • Year 2014 : A. S. Pillai, for his contribution in developing BrahMos cruise missile.

57. Who has been appointed as the Chairman of the 7th Central Pay Commission constituted by the Government of India in February 2014?

(A) Justice B. K. Singh

(B) Justice Swatanter Kumar

(C) Justice Ashok Kumar Mathur

(D) Justice Mridula Singh

58. Justice J. S. Verma Committee’s Report, 2013 deals with

(A) Centre-State relations

(B) change in law pertaining to offences against women

(C) the Fundamental Rights

(D) rights of children

59. How many members are elected from Bihar to the Lok Sabha?

(A) 20

(B) 30

(C) 35

(D) 40

61. Who among the following has been awarded the Nobel Prize for Literature in 2014?

(A) Kailash Satyarthi

(B) Malala Yousafzai

(C) Jean Tirole

(D) Patrick Modiano

  • Jean Patrick Modiano is a French novelist and recipient of the 2014 Nobel Prize in Literature. Called the “Marcel Proust of our time”,he won the 2014 Nobel Prize in Literature “for the art of memory with which he has evoked the most ungraspable human destinies and uncovered the life-world of German military occupation during second world war”.

62. Which among the following European Union countries is the first to officially recognize the State of Palestine?

(A) Sweden 

(B) Denmark

(C) Norway 

(D) Italy

60. What is the unique festival of Bihar?

(A) Deepawali

(B) Bisu

(C) Vinayak Chaturthi 

(D) Chhath Puja

63. Which one of the following countries has decided in January 2014 to make military service compulsory for all its adult males?

(A) North Korea


(C) Israel

(D) Turkey

64. What is the theme of Global Financial Development Report, 2014?

(A) Hunger and poverty

(B) Corruption and fraud in corporate sector 

(C) Financial inclusion

(D) Global recession and the Third World

65. Who among the following has/have figured in ‘Time’ magazine’s list of 25 most influential teens of 2014?

(A) Malia and Sasha Obama

(B) Kendall and Kylie Jenner

(C) Malala Yousafzai

(D) All of them

66. The Seventh BRIGS Summit is proposed to be held in 2015 at

(A) Durban, South Africa

(B) Ufa, Russia

(C) New Delhi, India

(D) Sanya, China

67. The International Day of Persons with Disabilities is celebrated on

(A) 10th December

(B) 24th October

(C) 19th November

(D) 3rd December

  • The International Day of Persons with Disabilities is marked around the world annually on 3 December, as per General Assembly resolution 47/3 of 14 October 1992, to promote awareness and mobilize support for critical issues pertaining to the inclusion of persons with disabilities in society and development.

68. Amnesty International is an organization which is associated with

(A) protection of women’s rights

(B) protection of human rights

(C) abolition of untouchability

(D) None of the above

69. In October 2014, India has been reelected for three years as a member to

(A) the UN Security Council

(B) the UN General Assembly

(C) the UN Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC)

(D) the World Bank

70. Angola, Malaysia, New Zealand, Spain and Venezuela were elected as non-permanent members on 16th October, 2014 to serve in

(A) the UN General Assembly

(B) the UN Trusteeship Council

(C) the UN Human Rights Commission

(D) the UN Security Council

71. Which one of the following countries won the highest number of Gold Medals at the 

Winter Olympic Games held in Sochi in February 2014?

(A) Canada

(B) Russia

(C) Norway


72. Who among the following cricket all-rounders cracked the fastest century in one-day international cricket history in January 2014?

(A) Darren Bravo

(B) James Faulkner

(C) Glenn Maxwell

(D) Corey Anderson

73. Who was the winner of the Champions League T-20, 2014?

A) Kolkata Knight Riders (India)

(B) Rajasthan Royals (India)

(C) Sydney Sixers (Australia)

(D) Chennai Super Kings (India)

74. What was India’s position in the 17th Asian Games in 2014?

(A) 8th

(B) 6th

(C) 3rd

(D) 4th

75. Who among the following was the Gold Medal winner in the 17th Asian Games Men’s Freestyle 65 kg Wrestling?

(A) Jittu Rai

(B) Sandeep Kumar

(C) Rajat Chauhan

(D) Yogeshwar Dutt

76. Which country achieved the fifth position in the 20th Commonwealth Games?

(A) Sri Lanka

(B) Nepal

(C) England

(D) India

77. Who won her first Grand Slam Australian Open Tennis (Competition, 2014 (Women’s Singles)?

(A) Li Na

(B) Dominika Cibulkova

(C) Sara Errani

(D) None of them

78. The winner of the SAFF Tournament, 2013 was 

(A) India

(B) Maldives

(C) Afghanistan

(D) Nepal

79. Which award is given for excellence in sports?

(A) Jamnalal Bajaj Award 

(B) Arjuna Award

(C) Tagore Award

(D) Moortidevi Award

80. ‘Prince of Wales Cup’ is associated with the game of 

(A) hockey

(B) cricket

(C) football

(D) golf

81. Who among the following was not associated with the excavation of Harappa and Mohenjo-daro? 

(A) R. D. Banerjee 

(B) K. N. Dikshit

(C) M. S. Vats

(D) V. A. Smith

82. Gautama Buddha gave his first sermon at

(A) Vaishali

(B) Kaushambi

(C) Sarnath

(D) Pawapuri

83. Who is called the Napoleon of Ancient India’?

(A) Chandragupta Maurya

(B) Pushyamitra

(C) Kanishka

(D) Samudragupta

84. Which Chinese traveller visited India during Harshavardhana’s rules?

(A) Fa-Hien

(B) Hiuen-Tsang

(C) I-tsing

(D) Taranath

85. What is Dhai Din Ka Zhonpda’?

(A) Mosque

(B) Temple

(C) Saint’s but

(D) Tower

  • It is actually a Masjid built by Qutub-ud-Din-Aibak, first Sultan of Delhi, in AD 1199 contemporary to the other one built at Qutub-Minar complex of Delhi known as Quwal-ul-Islam mosque (power of Islam). Sultan Iltutmish had subsequently beautified it in AD 1213

86. In which language was Tuzuk-i-Baburi’ written?

(A) Persian

(B) Arabic 

(C) Turkish

(D) Urdu 

  • Babur, the first Mughal ruler, wrote his autobiography Baburnamah or Tuzuk-i-baburi in Turki or Turkish language which was his native tongue. Baburnamah, Wakai or Wakiat-i-Baburi, or Tuzak-i-Baburi as Babur’s Memoirs are variously known, is the main source of information about his life and career.
  • Baburnama  was tranlated version of Tuzk-e Babri in Chagatai/Persian, literally: “Book of Babur” or “Letters of Babur”.

87. Who was the commander of Rana Pratap’s army in the Battle of Haldighat?

(A) Amar Singh

(B) Man Singh

(C) Hakim Khan

(D) Shakti Singh 

  • Hakim Khan Suri (also known as Hakim Soz Khan Afghan) was an Afghan warrior and chief of artillery in Rana Pratap‘s army.

88. Where was the capital of Shivaji?

(A) Raigarh

(B) Sindhudurg

(C) Poona

(D) Kolhapur 

89. In which year was the Regulating Act passed?

(A) AD 1757

(B) AD 1765

(C) AD 1773

(D) AD 1793 

90. Who was the Governor-General of India in 1857?

(A) Wellesley

(B) Dalhousie 

(C) Canning

(D) Minto 

91. After which incident Mahatma Gandhi had called Non-Cooperation Movement as his `Himalayan Blunder’? 

(A) Chauri-Chaura

(B) Kheda Satyagraha

(C) Nagpur Satyagraha

(D) Rajkot Satyagraha 

92. Which movement started after the Partition of Bengal?

(A) Civil Disobedience Movement

(B) Swadeshi Movement

(C) Quit India Movement

(D) Non-Cooperation Movement 

93. Who was the first Indian woman President of the Indian National Congress?

(A) Mrs. Annie Besant

(B) Sucheta Kripalani

(C) Sarojini Naidu

(D) Indira Gandhi 

94. Where did Madam Cama hoist the first tricolour flag in 1907?

(A) London

(B) Paris

(C) Moscow

(D) Stuttgart 

  • The flag was unfurled by Madam Cama on 22 August 1907 at Stuttgrat, Germany, and attained the status of the first Indian flag to be hoisted at the foreign land. From this event onwards it was also referred to as ‘Berlin Committee flag’.

95. Who was the founder of Nalanda University?

(A) Chandragupta Vikramaditya

(B) Kumargupta

(C) Dharmapal

(D) Pushyagupta 

96. At which place in Bihar Gandhiji had his first Satyagraha?

(A) Champaran

(B) Chhapra

(C) Bettiah

(D) Patna

97. Who was the author of ‘Indica’?

(A) Vishnugupta

(B) Megasthenes

(C) Diamechus

(D) Pliny

98. Which Sikh Guru was born at Patna?

(A) Nanak

(B) Teg Bahadur

(C) Hargobind

(D) Gobind Singh

  • Gobind Singh was born to Guru Tegh Bahadur, the ninth Sikh guru, and Mata Gujri in Patna.

99. Who was the President of Gaya Session of the Indian National Congress held in 1922? 

(A) Chittaranjan Das

(B) S. N. Banerjee

(C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(D) Hakim Ajmal Khan

100. By which name is Jay Prakash Narayan known?

(A) Lokmanya

(B) Loknayak

(C) Lokhitvadi

(D) Lokneta

  • Jayaprakash Narayan was born in the early hours of October 11, 1902 in the remote Bihar village of Sitabdiara.

101. Which country has the largest coastline?


(B) Australia 

(C) Canada

(D) India

102. The largest producer of aluminium in the world is

(A) France

(B) India 


(D) Italy

103. The Pennines (Europe), the Appalachians (America) and the Aravallis (India) are examples of

(A) young mountains

(B) old mountains

(C) block mountains

(D) fold mountains

  • Old Mountains have rounded features and low elevation with worn out fold. Hence, the Pennines (Europe), the Appalachians (America) and the Aravallis (India) are examples of old mountains.

104. Match the rivers with the cities through which they are flowing and select the correct answer using the codes given below

City                River

a. Rotterdam 1. Seine

b. Paris         2. Potomac

c. Budapest    3. Rhine

d. Washington  4. Danube

(A) a b c d

     2 3 1 4

(B) a b c d

     1 3 4 2 

(C) a b c d 

      3 1 4 2

(D) a b c d 

     4 3 2 1

105. Which is the largest metal trading centre?

(A) Johannesburg

(B) New York

(C) London

(D) Singapore

106. Which of the following drainage systems fall into Bay of Bengal?

(A) Ganga, Brahmaputra and Godavari

(B) Mahanadi, Krishna and Cauvery

(C) Luni, Narmada and Tapti 

(D) Both (A) and (B)

107. The oldest oil field in India is

(A) Bombay High, Maharashtra

(B) Ankleshwar, Gujarat

(C) Navagam, Gujarat

(D) Digboi, Assam

Codes :

108. In India, Yarlung Zangbo River’ is known as

(A) Ganga

(B) Indus

(C) Brahmaputra

(D) Mahanadi

  • The Yarlung Tsangpo is the part of Brahmaputra River that flows through Tibet, known by its Tibetan name. It is sometimes called Yarlung Zangbo or Yarlung Zangbo Jiang

109. Which one of the following is the driest station?

(A) Mumbai

(B) Delhi

(C) Leh

(D) Bengaluru

  • Leh has a cold desert climate

110. Which amongst the following States has not identified tribal community?

(A) Maharashtra

(B) Chhattisgarh

(C) Haryana

(D) Karnataka

111. Sultanpur Bird Sanctuary is

(A) Chandigarh

(B) Bharatpur

(C) Gurgaon

(D) Gandhinagar

  • Sultanpur Bird Sanctuary is located at Sultanpur fifteen kilometres from Gurgaon, Haryana

112. The forest area in India per person (in average hectare  square m) is:

(A) 0.23

(B) 0.34

(C) 0.20

(D) 0.29 

113. Which of the following States has agricultural area less than 60 percent?

(A) West Bengal

(B) Punjab

(C) Uttar Pradesh

(D) Bihar 

114. Nagarjuna Sagar Multipurpose Project’ is on which river?

(A) Tapti

(B) Kosi

(C) Godavari 

(D) Krishna

  • Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is the world’s largest masonry dam. It was built on the Krishna River at Nagarjuna Sagar in between Guntur district of Andhra Pradesh state and Nalgonda district of Telangana state, India. The construction duration of the dam was between the years of 1955 and 1967.

115. Dalmianagar of Bihar is famous

(A) silk

(B) cement

(C) leather

(D) jute

  • Dalmianagar ‎is one of the oldest and biggest industrial towns in India. It is situated at Dehri-on-Sone on the banks of the Son River in Rohtas district of Bihar.
  • Dalmianagar developed into a massive industrial town from the 1940s till the 1980s with factories producing sugar, cement, paper, chemicals, vanaspati, etc.

116. How much square metres forest located at area is there in Bihar?

(A) 2812 square metres 

(B) 3612 square metres 

(C) 2461 square metres  

(D) 2612 square metres

  • Answer will be in Hectare in stead of sq. m

117. The two States of India, most  richly endowed with iron ore, are

(A) Bihar and West Bengal 

(B) Madhya Pradesh and Odisha

(C) Bihar and Odisha

(D) Madhya Pradesh and West Bengal 

118. What is chiefly found at Jharia in Jharkhand?

(A) Thorium

(B) Silk

(C) Gold

(D) Coal 

119. Which of the following towns is located easternmost of Bihar? 

(A) Bhagalpur

(B) Patna 

(C) Katihar

(D) Pumia 

120. Which of the following lakes is for situated in Bihar?  

(A) Anupam Lake

(B) Sambhar Lake

(C) Sukhna Lake 

(D) Kama Lake

  • Kaimur Wildlife Sanctuary near Bhabhua is located in the famous Kaimur hills range. In the valley portions and at there are several waterfalls of which the finest are Karkat Waterfall and Telhar falls. There are several Lakes as well where as famous lake is Anupam Lak

121. The Decentralization System was recommended by

(A) C. Rajagopalachari

(B) J. B. Kripalani

(C) Balwant Rai Mehta

(D) Ashok Mehta 

  • Balwantrai Mehta was an Indian politician who served as the second Chief Minister of Gujarat state, India. He is considered as the ‘Architect of Panchayati Raj ‘ due to his contributions towards democratic decentralisation.

122. Mahalanobis Plan Model adopted in India in the mid-fifties aimed at

(A) building a strong defence industry base

(B) setting up heavy industries which were capital intensive

(C) curbing inflation in the economy

(D) removing unemployment within a short period 

  • At the time of the formulation of the Second Five Year Plan, Prof.P.C. Mahalanobis who was friend and adviser to Late Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru and who was one time member of Planning Commission,  prepared a growth model with which he showed that to achieve a rapid long- term rate of growth it would be essential to devote a major part of the investment outlay to build­ing of basic heavy industries.

123. Match Column—A with Column—B and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Column—A     Column—B

a. 1955 1. Export-Import Bank of India

b. 1964 2. Industrial Develop-ment Bank of India

c. 1982 3. Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India

d. 1987 4. Board of Industrial and Financial Reconstruction Codes

(A) a b c d

     1 2 3 4

(B) a b c d

      2 3 1 4

(C) a b c d

      3 2 1 4

(D) a b c d

     4 1 2 3 

124.Match Column—A with Column—B and select the correct answer using the codes given below: 

Column—A            Column—B 

a. Open-general license  1. Employment

b. TRYSEM               2. External trade 

c. Wholesale price index  3. Credit control

d. Cash-reserve ratio   4. Inflation

Codes : 

(A) a b c d

     2 1 4 3

(B) a b c d

      2 4 3 1 

(C) a b c d

      4 3 2 1 

(D)a b c d

      3 2 1 4 

125. The controlling authority of government expenditure is

(A) the Reserve Bank of India

(B) the Planning Commission

(C) the Finance Ministry

(D) the Finance Commission 

126. Effective Revenue Deficit was introduced in the Union Budget of 

(A) 2010-11

(B) 2011-12

(C) 2009-10

(D) 2012-13

127. Interest payment is an item of 

(A) revenue expenditure

(B) capital expenditure

(C) plan expenditure

(D) None of the above 

128. The HDI rank of India as per the HDR-2014 is

(A) 137

(B) 128

(C) 135

(D) 147 

129. Consider the following consumer price indices :

I. Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers

II. Consumer Price Index for Agricultural Labourers

III. Consumer Price Index for Rural Labourers 

IV. Consumer Price Index for Urban Non-Manual  Employees 

Which of the above indices is/are compiled by Central Statistical Organization (CSO)? 

(A) III and IV only

(B) I, II and III only

(C) IV only

(D) I, II, III and IV 

  • As per the Press Release of Central Statistics Office, all-India linked Consumer Price Index for Urban Non-Manual Employees (UNME) has been discontinued with effect from January 2011.

130. What is the total production of oilseeds in India in 2013-14?

(A) 34.32 million tonnes

(B) 43.34 million tonnes

(C) 20.89 million tonnes

(D) 30.72 million tonnes 

131. India earns maximum foreign exchange by the export of 

(A) iron

(B) tea

(C) textile

(D) rubber

132. Foreign currency which has a  tendency of quick migration called

(A) hot currency

(B) gold currency

(C) soft currency

(D) hard currency 

133. Which one of the following is not included in the National Food Security Missions? 

(A) Oilseeds

(B) Wheat

(C) Rice

(D) Pulses 

134. Ad hoc Treasury Bill System of meeting budget deficit in India was abolished on 

(A) 1st April, 1992

(B) 1st April, 1994

(C) 31st March, 1996

(D) 31st March, 1997 

135. R. N. Malhotra Committee is associated with

(A) sick industries

(B) tax reforms 

(C) insurance sector

(D) banking sector 

  • In 1993, the Government of India appointed RN Malhotra Committee to lay down a road map for privatisation of the life insurance sector.

136. Service tax in India was is introduced in the year 

(A) 1994-95 

(B) 1996-97

(C) 1998-99

(D) 1991-92 

137. Convertibility of the rupee implies

(A) being able to convert rupee notes into gold

(B) freely permitting the conversion of rupee to other major currencies and vice versa

(C) allowing the value of the rupee to be fixed by market forces

(D) developing an international market for currencies in India 

138. Consider the following important sources of tax revenue for the Central Government 

I. Corporation tax

II. Taxes on income other than corporation tax

III. Customs

IV. Union excise duties 

Which one of the following is the correct descending order in terms of gross tax revenue? 





139. Which one of the following is the prescribed investment limit for medium enterprises in the manufacturing sector as per the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development Act, 2006? 

(A) More than 10 lakhs and less than 2 crores 

(B) More than 2 crores and less than 5 crores 

(C) More than 5 crores and less than 10 crores 

(D) More than 10 crores 

140. What does infant mortality rate refer to? 

(A) The ratio of number of children who die before their fifth birthday out of every 1000 live births 

(B) The ratio of number of children who die before their first birthday out of every 1000 live births 

(C) The ratio of number of children who die before their fifth birthday out of every 100 live births 

(D) The ratio of number of children who die before their first birthday out of every 100 live births 

141. In which of the following years was the trade balance favourable to India? 

(A) 1970-71 and 1974-75

(B) 1972-73 and 1976-77

(C) 1972-73 and 1975-76

(D) 1971-72 and 1976-77 

  • A surplus of Rs.28 crores in 1972-73 and Rs 1,031crores in 1976-77
  • Balance of Trade in India averaged -1965.98 USD Million from 1957 until 2015, reaching an all time high of 258.90 USD Million in March of 1977 and a record low of -20210.90 USD Million in October of 2012.

142. Consider the following agreements 

I. ISLFTA (India-Sri Lanka Free Trade Agreement)

II. SAFTA (South Asian Free Trade Area)

III. CECA (Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement between India and Singapore) 

IV. SAPTA (South Preferential Arrangement Asian Trade)

Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above agreements? 

Ans : IV, II, III, I

  • SAPTA (1993), SAFTA (1995), CECA (2006) and ISLFTA (2013-14-15)

143. During which year was the annual average growth rate (at statements constant prices) of agriculture and allied sectors negative? 

(A) 2002-03

(B) 2003-04

(C) 2005-06

(D) 2006-07 

144. Consider the following statements : 

I. Varsha Bima, the rainfall insurance scheme, is managed by the Agriculture Insurance Company of India Limited (AICIL). 

II. The scheme was introduced during the 2007 south-west monsoon period. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) I only

(B) II only

(C) Both I and II

(D) Neither I nor II 

145. Consider the following

I. Bank rate is the rate of interest which RBI charges its clients on their short-term borrowing. 

II. Repo rate is the rate of interest which RBI charges its clients on their long-term borrowing. 

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

(A) I only

(B) II only

(C) Both I and II

(D) Neither I nor II 

146. Financial sector reforms in India consist of 

(A) lowering down of CRR and SLR 

(B) entry of private firms in insurance sector 

(C) deregulation of rate of interest 

(D) All of the above

147. Which of the following is not a component of Bharat Nirman?

(A) Rural housing

(B) Rural electrification

(C) Agro-based industries

(D) Rural telephony 

148. According to the Planning Commission of India, which of the following are correct for the poverty line? 

I. r 42 per capita per day in urban area 

II. r 26 per capita per day in rural area 

III. r 32 per capita per day in urban area 

IV. r 32 per capita per day in rural area 

Choose the correct option from the following. 

(A) I and II

(B) I and III

(C) II and III

(D) III and IV 

149. Consider the following schemes : 





The correct chronological sequence of the launching of these schemes is

(A) II – IV – I – III

(B) IV – II – III – I

(C) IV – III – I – II

(D) II – IV – III – I

  • Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme (RLEGP): This was a totally centrally financed programme, introduced on August 15, 1983
  • Training of Rural Youth for Self Employment (TRYSEM) : TRYSEM was introduced in 1979
  • Jawahar Rozgar Yojana (JRY) : In the last year of the Seventh Plan(1989), JRY was launched
  • Employment Assurance Scheme (EAS) The Employment Assurance Scheme (EAS) was introduced on 2nd October, 1993 in the rural areas.

150. Match Column—A with Column—B and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Column—A                          Column—B

a. National Agricultural Policy         1. 2004

b. Marine Fishing Policy                  2. 1978 

c. New Foreign Trade  Policy           3. 2000

d. Seventh Finance Commission      4. 2014

Codes :

(A) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4

(B)a -4, b -3, c -1, d -2

(C)a -1, b -4, c -2, d-3

(D) a -3, b -1, c -4, d -2

  •  The Seventh finance Commission was incorporated in the year 1978 consisting of Shri J.M. Shelat as the chairman

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