UPPSC Prelims General Studies Paper – 2012 (Part 2)

UPPSC Prelims General Studies Paper – 2012 (Part 2)

76. Which of the following seas has the highest salinity?
a. Caspian Sea
b. Mediterranean Sea
c. Red Sea
d. Dead Sea

Answer: d

77. Which of the following countries is the largest producer of diamond?
a. Australia
b. Venezuela
c. Russia
d. Botswana

Answer: d

78. The “Death Valley” in South California, USA is an example of
a. Anticlinal Valley
b. Synclinal Valley
c. Antecedent Valley
d. Rift Valley

Answer: c

79. Which of the following State is the largest manganese producer in India?
a. Maharashtra
b. Madhya Pradesh
c. Karnataka
d. Orissa

Answer: d

80. Which of the following Union Territories has the lowest population density?
a. Daman and Diu
b. Dadra and Nagar Haveli
c. Andaman and Nicobar
d. Puducheri

Answer: c

81. Which of the following is the highest Peak in South India?
a. Anai Mudi
b. Doda Beta
c. Mahendragiri
d. Dhupgarh

82. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
a. Fulani – West Africa
b. Bantu – Sahara
c. Masai – East Africa
d. Nuba – Sudan

Answer: b

83. Indian Parliament consists of
a. Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
b. Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Prime Minister
c. Speaker and Lok Sabha
d. President and both the Houses

Answer: d

84. The joint sitting of the House of People and the Council of States is summoned by
a. The President
b. Speaker of Lok Sabha
c. Parliament
d. Chairman of Rajya Sabha

Answer: a

85. Money Bill is introduced in
a. Lok Sabha
b. Rajya Sabha
c. Joint sitting of both the Houses
d. None of the above

Answer: a

86. Who of the following Presidents of India was associated with Trade Union Movement?
a. VV Giri
b. N Sanjiva Reddy
c. KR Narayanan
d. Zakir Hussain

Answer: a

87. Which of the following is not a temperate grassland?
a. Pampas
b. Veld
c. Downs
d. Savannah

Answer: d

88. The largest proven oil reserve of the world lies in
a. Venezuela
b. Saudi Arabia
c. Iran
d. Iraq

Answer: a

89. Peanuts are the main crop of
a. Georgia
b. Gambia
c. Ghana
d. Guatemala

Answer: b

90. The correct sequence of the following countries in terms of area in descending order is:
a. Brazil, Argentina, Australia, India
b. Australia, Brazil, India, Argentina
c. Argentina, India, Australia, Brazil
d. India, Brazil, Argentina, Australia

Answer: a

91. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to which of the following?
a. Prime Minister
b. President
c. Rajya Sabha
d. Lok Sabha

Answer: d

92. No money bill can be introduced in the Legislative Assembly of a State, except on the recommendations of
a. the Parliament
b. the Governor of the State
c. the President of India
d. a Special Committee of Ministers

Answer: b

93. Who amongst following elects the Vice President of India? Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
a. Members of Lok Sabha
b. Members of Rajya Sabha
c. Members Legislative Assemblies
d. Members of Legislative Councils
Which is correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 1, 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: a

94. The Council of Ministers has to resign if a no-confidence motion is passed by a majority of members of
a. Lok Sabha
b. Rajya Sabha
c. Both the Houses separately
d. Both the Houses in joint sitting

Answer: a

95. State Governor is appointed by
a. Central Cabinet
b. Chief Justice of Supreme Court
c. Speaker of Lok Sabha
d. President of India

Answer: d

96. The Parliament can legislate on a subject in the State list
a. by the wish of the President
b. if the Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution
c. under any circumstances
d. by asking the legislature of the concerned State

Answer: b

97. Fundamental Duties were included in the Constitution of India on the recommendation of
a. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
b. lyenger Committee
c. Swaran Singh Committee
d. Thakkar Committee

Answer: c

98. Who has the right under the Constitution to seek the opinion of the Supreme Court on question of law a. President
a. President
b. Any High Court
c. Prime Minister
d. All the above

Answer: a

99. Which of the following are constitutional authorities? Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
a. State Election Commission
b. State Finance Commission
c. Zila Panchayat
d. State Electoral Officer

Codes:

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1, 2 and 3 only
c. 2, 3 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: b

100. Which among the following functions as a coordinator between the Planning
Commission and State Governments?
a. National Integration Council
b. Finance Commission
c. National Development Council
d. None of the above

Answer: c

101. The Office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India was created
a. through an Act of the Parliament
b. by the Constitution
c. through a Cabinet Resolution
d. none of the above

Answer: b

102. What is the tenure of the Chief Election Commissioner of India?
a. Five Years
b. During the pleasure of the. President
c. Six years or till the age of 65 years whichever is earlier
d. Five Years or till the age of 65 years whichever is earlier

Answer: c

103. The number of seats reserved for women in Panchayati Raj Institutions in UrP. Is
a. one-third of total seats
b. in proportion to women’s population
c. one-fourth of total seats
d. as per the requirements circumstances

Answer: a

104. In which one of the following years the Unorganized Workers’Social Security act was passed?
a. 2004
b. 2006
c. 2008
d. 2010

Answer: c

105. Tendulkar Committee has estimated that in India the * percentage of the population below poverty line is
a. 27.2
b. 37.2
c. 22.2
d. 32.7

Answer: b

106. The minimum number of Judges of the Supreme Court required for hearing any case involving interpretation of the Constitution is
a. ten
b. nine
c. seven
d. five

Answer: c

107. In which of the following cases, Supreme Court held that: “Fundamental Rights enable a man to chalk out his own life in the manner he likes best.”
a. Indira Gandhi Vs. Raj Narain
b. Golak Nath Vs. State of Punjab
c. Bank Nationalization Case
d. Azhar Vs. Municipal Corporation

Answer: b

108. In which of the following cases Supreme Court has held that ‘the Preamble forms part of the Constitution’
a. Union of India Vs. Dr. Kohli
b. Banarsidas Vs. State of UP
c. Bommai Vs. Union of India
d. Maiak Singh Vs. State of Punjab

Answer: c

109. In which of the following States Panchayati Raj was introduced first?
a. UP
b. Bihar
c. Rajasthan
d. Gujarat

Answer: c

110. Which among the following States has launched ‘Apna van apna dhan’ scheme?
a. Uttar Pradesh
b. Madhya Pradesh
c. Himachal Pradesh
d. Arunachal Pradesh

Answer: c

111. ‘Swabhiman Scheme’ launched in India is associated with
a. Rural women rights
b. Rural old people care
c. Rural banking
d. Rural food security

Answer: c

112. The largest share of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) in India comes from
a. agriculture and allied sectors
b. manufacturing. Construction, electricity and gas
c. service sector
d. defence and Public administration

Answer: c

113. The most common measure of estimating inflation in India is
a. Price Index
b. Wholesale Price Index
c. Consumer Price Index
d. Price Index of Industrial Goods

Answer: b

114. What percentage of the total population of the world resides in India, as estimated in the vear 2011?
a. 15
b. 17.5
c. 20.0
d. 22.5

Answer: b

115. As per the provisional figures of 2011 Census of India, which one of the following States has the highest child sex ratio?
a. Chhattisgarh
b. Haryana
c. Uttar Pradesh
d. Punjab

Answer: a

116. Which of the following is the most Populous State in India as per the provisional figures of Census of India 2011?
a. Madhya Pradesh
b. Andhra Pradesh
c. Odisha
d. Uttar Pradesh

Answer: d

117. A country’s natural capital includes all of the following except:
a. Forests
b. Water
c. Roads
d. Minerals

Answer: c

118. The National Institute for the Visually Handicapped is situated at
a. Kolkata
b. Dehradun
c. Mumbai
d. Hyderabad

Answer: b

119. Who maintains the foreign exchange reserve in India?
a. Reserve Bank of India
b. State Bank of India
c. Ministry of Finance, Government of India
d. Export-Import Bank of India
Answer: a

120. Which one of the following countries was the first to adopt family planning programme officially?
a. Brazil
b. USA
c. India
d. China

Answer: d

121. Which one of the following is the best source of generating electricity in India from the viewpoint of sustainable development?
a. Coal
b. Mineral oil and gas
c. Hydro-electncity
d. Atomic energy

Answer: c

122. Sustainable development is a case of inter-generational sensibility in respect of use of
a. natural resources
b. material resources
c. industrial resources
d. social resources

Answer: a

123. ‘Chipko’ movement was basically against
a. Water pollution
b. Noise pollution Deforestation
c. Deforestation
d. pollution

Answer: c

124. ‘Eco Mark’ is given to the Indian products that are
a. Pure and unadulterated
b. Rich in proteins
c. Environment friendly
d. Economically viable

Answer: c

125. Which of the following is not a Greer House gas?
a. Carbon dioxide
b. Methane
c. Nitrous oxide
d. Nitrogen

Answer: d

126. Naihati, where according to the Rai Budget 2012 − 13 a rail coach factor> and museum is to be established, is the birtjrplace of
a. Rabindranath Tagore
b. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyaya
c. Subhas Chandra Bose
d. Swami Vivekanand

Answer: b

127. Which of the following represents the average increase in earth’s temperature during the last century?
a. 0.6 degree Celsius
b. 0.7 degree Celsius
c. 0.8 degree Celsius
d. 0.9 degree Celsius

Answer: c

128. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists:
List-I (Air Pollutant)List-II (Part affected)
a. Asbestos dust 1. Brain
b. Lead 2. Stomach
c. Mercury 3. Lung
d. Carbon 4. Blood stream Monoxide

A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 3 1 2 4
c. 2 3 4 1
d. 4 3 2 1

Answer: b

129. The United Nations Convention on Climate Change ratified by more tha 150 countries became effective on
a. March 21, 1994
b. May 21, 1995
c. June 21, 1996
d. June 21, 1999

Answer: a

130 Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
a. Centre for Ecological Sciences (CES)- Bengaluru
b. Wildlife Institute of India – Dehradun
c. Indian Institute of Forest Management – Kolkata
d. GB Pant Institute of Himalayan Environment and Development – Almora

Answer: c

131. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Biosphere sites)List-II (Year of setting up)
A. Nilgiri
B. Nanda Devi
C. Sunderban
D. Kanchanjunga

1. Year 2000
2. Year 1989
3. Year 1988
4. Year 1986

A B C D

a. 1 2 3 4
b. 4 3 2 1
c. 3 4 1 2
d. 2 3 1 4

Answer: b

132. As an ecosystem, wetlands are useful for which of the following?
a. For nutrient recovery and cycling
b. For releasing heavy metals through absorption by plants
c. In reducing siltiation of rivers by/retaining sediments
d. All the above

Answer: d

133. Which of the following countries does not have a global atmosphere watch station to collect data on world temperatures?
a. Algeria
b. Brazii
c. Kenya
d. India

Answer: d

134. World Environment Day is celebrated on ^
a. December 1
b. June 5
c. November 14
d. August 15

Answer: b

135. Lichens are the best indicator of
a. air pollution
b. water pollution
c. soil pollution
d. noise pollution

Answer: a

136. The cycling of elements in an ecosystem is called
a. Chemical cycles
b. Biogeochemical cycles
c. Geological cycles
d. Geochemical cycles

Answer: c

137. National Environmental Engineering Research Institute is situated at
a. Nagpur
b. Pune
c. Lucknow
d. New Delhi

Answer: a

138. Which of the following substances is/are ozone depleting? Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
a. Chlorofluoro Carbons
b. Halans
c. Carbon tetrachloride
Codes:
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: d

139. The transitional zone between two distinct communities is known as
a. Ecotype
b. Ecade
c. Ecosphere
d. Ecotone

Answer: d

140. Which of the following regions of India have been designated as biodiversity hot spots? Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
a. Eastern Himalaya
b. Eastern Ghat
c. Western Ghat
d. Western Himalaya
Codes:
a. 4 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 4 only
d. 3 and 4 only

Answer: b

141. The non-biotic pollutant of underground water is
a. Bacteria
b. Algae
c. Arsenic
d. Viruses

Answer: c

142. Which one of the following is the most effective factor of coral bleaching?
a. Marine pollution
b. Increase of salinity of seas
c. Rise in normal temperature of sea-water
d. Outbreak of diseases and epidemics

Answer: c

143. Which one of the following is correctly
a. Surface to surface missile
b. Surface to air missile
c. Anti-tank missile
d. Light combat aircraft

Answer: c

144. The reason of mirage is
a. interference of light
b. diffraction of light
c. polarisation of light
d. total internal reflection of light

Answer: d

145. The colour of light is determined by its
a. amplitude
b. wavelength
c. intensity
d. velocity

Answer: b

146. Ultrasonics are sound waves of frcauency
a. greater than 20, 000 Hz
b. less than 10, 000 Hz
c. equal to 1000 Hz
d. none of these

Answer: a

147. Kaziranga is known for
a. Rhinoceros
b. Tiger
c. Birds
d. Lion

Answer: a

148. The maximum biodiversity is found in
a. Tropical rain forests
b. Temperate forests
c. Coniferous forests
d. Arctic forests

Answer: b

149. The minimum area of the land required to completely sustain the life of one person is called his
a. Biota
b. Ecological foot print
c. Biome
d. Niche

Answer: b

150. The most populated desert in the world
a. Sahara
b. Gobi
c. Thar
d. Kalahari

Answer: c

 

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